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Domain 4 – Operations and Incident Response – Results
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Attempt 1
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Question 1
You’re conducting a network security assessment and need to identify the actions typically taken during the "Containment" phase of incident response. What are common measures in this phase?
Restoring affected systems to their original state, eliminating vulnerabilities
Correct answer
Preventing the incident from spreading and causing further damage
Documenting incident details and findings for future reference
Identifying vulnerabilities and weaknesses in the system
Overall explanation
B) During the "Containment" phase, the primary objective is to prevent the incident from spreading and causing more harm. This involves isolating affected systems or networks to limit the impact and prevent the situation from worsening.
Incorrect answers:
A) Restoring affected systems and eliminating vulnerabilities are actions taken during the "Eradication and Recovery" phase rather than "Containment."
C) Documenting incident details is part of the "Lessons Learned" phase after the incident has been managed, not the immediate containment action.
D) Identifying vulnerabilities and weaknesses in the system is more aligned with the "Preparation" phase, focusing on proactive security measures rather than containment during an incident.
Question 2
A security analyst responding to a security incident involving unauthorized access to sensitive data. What is a common step during the "Eradication and Recovery" phase of incident response?
Isolating affected systems and preventing the incident from spreading
Documenting findings and actions taken for future reference
Correct answer
Restoring affected systems to a secure state and implementing security updates
Investigating the root cause of the incident and identifying gaps in security protocols
Overall explanation
C) The "Eradication and Recovery" phase involves restoring affected systems to a secure state by removing malware, applying security updates, and ensuring systems are secure and functional.
Incorrect answers:
A) Isolating affected systems is a step taken during the "Containment" phase to prevent further spread, not specifically during the "Eradication and Recovery" phase.
B) Documenting findings is part of the "Lessons Learned" phase after the incident has been managed, rather than during the "Eradication and Recovery" phase.
D) Investigating the root cause of the incident and identifying gaps in security protocols is a critical step taken during the "Lessons Learned" phase rather than in the "Eradication and Recovery" phase.
Question 3
An organization experiences a data breach, and you’re part of the incident response team. What should be a priority during the "Lessons Learned" phase?
Implementing additional security measures to prevent future incidents
Identifying the intruder and reporting the breach to law enforcement
Correct answer
Documenting the incident details and the actions taken for future reference
Restoring affected systems and data to their original state
Overall explanation
C) During the "Lessons Learned" phase, it’s crucial to document incident details, actions taken, and their outcomes. This documentation helps improve future incident response strategies and training.
Incorrect answer:
A) Implementing additional security measures is an action taken after learning from the incident but is not specific to the "Lessons Learned" phase.
B) Identifying the intruder and reporting the breach is part of the immediate response rather than the reflective "Lessons Learned" phase.
D) Restoring affected systems to their original state is an action taken during the "Eradication and Recovery" phase, not specifically during the "Lessons Learned" phase.
Question 4
An organization encountered a significant Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack. What is a key task during the "Preparation" phase of incident response planning?
Detecting and analyzing the specifics of the ongoing attack
Correct answer
Educating employees about common security threats and incident reporting procedures
Isolating affected systems to contain the spread of the attack
Restoring affected systems and implementing security updates
Overall explanation
B) During the "Preparation" phase, educating employees about common security threats and incident reporting procedures is crucial for building a proactive security culture within the organization.
Incorrect answers:
A) Detecting and analyzing the specifics of the ongoing attack is a task in the "Identification" phase, not specifically in the "Preparation" phase.
C) Isolating affected systems is an action taken during the "Containment" phase to prevent further spread, not specifically during the "Preparation" phase.
D) Restoring affected systems and implementing security updates is an action taken during the "Eradication and Recovery" phase, not specifically during the "Preparation" phase.
Question 5
A company experiences a ransomware attack on its network. What is a significant action during the "Containment" phase of incident response for this scenario?
Notifying regulatory bodies and affected stakeholders
Correct answer
Disconnecting affected systems from the network to prevent further encryption
Documenting the attack details for post-incident analysis
Conducting a comprehensive system-wide audit to identify the affected areas
Overall explanation
B) During the "Containment" phase in a ransomware attack, disconnecting affected systems from the network is crucial to halt the spread of encryption to other systems, limiting the damage.
Incorrect answers:
A) Notifying regulatory bodies and stakeholders is an important step in the "Notification" phase, ensuring the affected parties are informed.
C) Documenting attack details is essential but is typically part of the "Lessons Learned" phase, aimed at post-incident analysis and improvement.
D) Conducting a comprehensive audit is more aligned with the "Eradication and Recovery" phase to identify the extent of the attack and remediate affected areas.
Question 6
A data breach incident occurred within an organization. What is an essential step during the "Lessons Learned" phase of incident response for this scenario?
Identifying weaknesses in the incident response plan for immediate rectification
Reporting the incident to law enforcement for further investigation
Collecting evidence for potential legal actions against the perpetrators
Correct answer
Documenting the shortcomings, actions, and improvements for future incident responses
Overall explanation
D) During the "Lessons Learned" phase, documenting the weaknesses, actions taken, and improvements for future incident responses is crucial for developing better strategies.
Incorrect answers:
A) Identifying weaknesses in the incident response plan is essential but is more aligned with the "Preparation" phase for immediate improvements.
B) Reporting incidents to law enforcement is generally part of the "Notification" phase to involve legal authorities for investigation.
C) Collecting evidence for potential legal actions is important but generally falls within the "Investigation" phase for legal proceedings.
Question 7
During a network security incident, what is an immediate task during the "Identification" phase of incident response?
Disconnecting the affected systems from the network
Implementing additional security measures to prevent further incidents
Correct answer
Analyzing logs and traffic patterns to understand the incident’s nature
Notifying company management and affected stakeholders about the incident
Overall explanation
C) During the "Identification" phase, analyzing logs and traffic patterns is crucial to understand the nature and scope of the incident.
Incorrect answers:
A) Disconnecting affected systems is a step in the "Containment" phase to prevent further spread and damage.
B) Implementing additional security measures is more aligned with the "Preparation" phase, improving the system’s security posture.
D) Notifying management and stakeholders is a step in the "Notification" phase to inform relevant parties about the incident.
Question 8
An organization suspects an insider threat. What is a vital step during the "Identification" phase of incident response for this situation?
Notifying law enforcement for immediate investigation
Correct answer
Conducting a comprehensive audit of user access logs and privileges
Disabling network connectivity to prevent further potential damage
Implementing new security protocols to prevent similar incidents
Overall explanation
B) During the "Identification" phase for an insider threat, conducting a comprehensive audit of user access logs and privileges is crucial to identify unusual or suspicious activities within the network.
Incorrect answers:
A) Notifying law enforcement is an essential step in the "Containment" phase, but not specifically during the "Identification" phase.
C) Disabling network connectivity can be a part of the "Containment" phase, aiming to prevent the spread of the incident and limit the damage.
D) Implementing new security protocols to prevent similar incidents is more aligned with the "Preparation" phase for future mitigation.
Question 9
A company is addressing a significant breach in their database systems. What is an essential action during the "Containment" phase of incident response in this situation?
Correct answer
Isolating affected systems and preventing the incident from spreading
Informing the media and public about the breach for transparency
Conducting a detailed investigation to identify the root cause
Enhancing the system’s security through new firewalls and protocols
Overall explanation
A) During the "Containment" phase, isolating affected systems is crucial to prevent the spread of the incident to other parts of the network and limit the damage.
Incorrect answers:
B) Informing the media and public for transparency is part of the "Notification" phase after containing the incident and assessing the situation.
C) Conducting a detailed investigation is a step during the "Eradication and Recovery" phase to identify the root cause and eradicate the issue.
D) Enhancing the system’s security through new firewalls and protocols is a task in the "Preparation" phase to prevent future incidents.
Question 10
An organization experiences a malware outbreak across its network. What should be a priority during the "Eradication and Recovery" phase of incident response in this scenario?
Disconnecting affected systems from the network
Investigating the source of the malware and tracing its propagation
Correct answer
Restoring affected systems to a clean and secure state
Enhancing employee awareness of cybersecurity best practices
Overall explanation
C) During the "Eradication and Recovery" phase, restoring affected systems to a clean and secure state is a priority to eliminate the malware and return systems to normal functionality.
Incorrect answers:
A) Disconnecting affected systems is more aligned with the "Containment" phase to prevent further spread and damage.
B) Investigating the source of the malware is part of the "Identification" phase to understand the nature of the incident.
D) Enhancing employee awareness is a significant step, but it aligns more with the "Preparation" phase for future prevention.
Question 11
A system outage occurred due to a cyber attack. What is a crucial action during the "Lessons Learned" phase of incident response in this case?
Filing lawsuits against identified attackers for damages
Correct answer
Documenting the incident details, responses, and areas for improvement
Implementing immediate measures to counter future cyber attacks
Publicly announcing the incident to rebuild customer trust and confidence
Overall explanation
B) During the "Lessons Learned" phase, documenting incident details and responses, and identifying areas for improvement is crucial for future incident response improvement.
Incorrect answers:
A) Filing lawsuits against identified attackers is a legal action taken after the incident but is not specific to improving future incident responses.
C) Implementing immediate measures to counter future cyber attacks is more aligned with the "Preparation" phase for future prevention.
D) Publicly announcing the incident is a step in the "Notification" phase to inform stakeholders after the situation has been contained.
Question 12
A network administrator wants to map the network topology and identify active hosts and their connections. Which tool would be most suitable for this purpose?
tracert/traceroute
nslookup/dig
Correct answer
nmap
ipconfig/ifconfig
Overall explanation
C) nmap (Network Mapper) is a powerful tool used for network discovery and security auditing. It scans networks, identifies active hosts, their services, and can provide information about open ports, OS detection, etc. It’s commonly used for mapping network topology.
Incorrect answers:
A) tracert/traceroute is used to trace the path a packet takes to reach a destination, showing the route but not mapping network topology.
B) nslookup/dig are used for DNS-related queries and wouldn’t provide network topology mapping.
D) ipconfig/ifconfig are used to display network interface information on Windows and Unix-like systems but don’t map network topology.
Question 13
A system administrator needs to analyze the route a packet takes to reach a specific server and identify any network delays. What tool should be utilized for this task?
Correct answer
ping/pathping
hping
netstat
netcat
Overall explanation
A) The ping command, and its extended version pathping in Windows, is used to test connectivity and measure round-trip times between the source and a destination. It helps identify delays and packet loss on the network route.
Incorrect answers:
B) hping is used for packet crafting and testing firewalls, among other functions, but isn’t specifically for route analysis or network delay identification.
C) netstat displays network statistics and current connections but doesn’t analyze the route a packet takes or identify network delays.
D) netcat is a versatile networking tool but isn’t primarily used for route analysis or network delay identification.
Question 14
A security analyst needs to perform a detailed examination of network packets, including crafting and sending custom packets to analyze network security. What tool best facilitates this analysis?
Wireshark
Correct answer
Metasploit
Cain and Abel
Snort
Overall explanation
B) Metasploit is an exploitation framework widely used for penetration testing and ethical hacking. It allows security researchers to create, test, and execute various exploits, payloads, and post-exploitation modules.
Incorrect answers:
A) Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used for network troubleshooting and analysis, not for exploitation.
C) Cain and Abel is a password recovery tool used to recover various kinds of passwords but not designed for exploitation.
D) Snort is an open-source network intrusion detection system but is not an exploitation framework.
Question 15
An IT administrator wants to test the strength of various passwords stored within the company’s database. What type of tool would be best for this task?
Wireshark
Correct answer
John the Ripper
Nmap
Snort
Overall explanation
B) John the Ripper is a well-known password-cracking tool used for testing and evaluating the strength of passwords stored within databases by employing various techniques like dictionary attacks, brute force, etc.
Incorrect answers:
A) Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer and is not designed for password cracking or strength evaluation.
C) Nmap is a network scanning tool used to discover hosts and services on a network, not for password cracking.
D) Snort is an intrusion detection system and does not have password-cracking capabilities.
Question 16
A data security officer needs to completely sanitize sensitive information from a retired hard drive, ensuring that no data is recoverable. What process would be ideal for this task?
Encryption
Correct answer
Disk Wiping
File Shredding
Network Segmentation
Overall explanation
B) Disk wiping involves overwriting data on a hard drive, making it nearly impossible to recover the data. It ensures sensitive information cannot be retrieved from the retired hardware.
Incorrect answers:
A) Encryption secures data but doesn’t eliminate it. Recovering data from encrypted disks is possible if the encryption key is available.
C) File shredding permanently deletes files but does not completely sanitize the entire hard drive.
D) Network segmentation is a process of dividing a network into segments for security purposes and is not related to sanitizing data from a hard drive.
Question 17
A company wants to ensure that data sanitized from retired hardware cannot be recovered. What tool or method best achieves this goal?
Data Masking
Disk Encryption
Correct answer
Degaussing
Firewall Implementation
Overall explanation
C) Degaussing is a method that uses a powerful magnet to destroy data stored on magnetic media, such as hard drives, rendering the data irretrievable.
Incorrect answers:
A) Data Masking is a technique used to obscure original data with modified content but doesn’t render the original data irrecoverable.
B) Disk Encryption secures data with an encryption key. If the key is unavailable, the data might be unrecoverable but not guaranteed.
D) Firewall Implementation is a network security tool and doesn’t ensure data on retired hardware is irrecoverable.
Question 18
In the event of a major cybersecurity incident, what plan outlines the measures a company should take to continue its critical operations?
Stakeholder management plan
Communication plan
Disaster recovery plan
Correct answer
Business continuity plan
Overall explanation
D) The Business Continuity Plan (BCP) outlines the strategies and procedures a company should follow to continue critical operations during and after a disaster or incident. It focuses on maintaining essential business functions during and after the incident.
Incorrect answers:
A) Stakeholder management plan details the management of stakeholders but does not specifically address the continuation of critical operations.
B) The Communication plan details the communication strategy during an incident but not the overall business continuity procedures.
C) The Disaster Recovery Plan focuses on IT systems and infrastructure recovery but doesn’t encompass the entire business operations’ continuity.
Question 19
During an ongoing security incident, what plan describes the process of communicating with stakeholders and managing their concerns effectively?
Stakeholder management plan
Correct answer
Communication plan
Disaster recovery plan
Business continuity plan
Overall explanation
B) The Communication plan details the strategies for effective communication with stakeholders, customers, employees, and the public during an ongoing security incident, ensuring timely, accurate, and effective communication.
Incorrect answers:
A) The Stakeholder management plan focuses on managing stakeholders but doesn’t specifically outline communication procedures.
C) The Disaster Recovery Plan concentrates on restoring IT systems, not on communication strategies.
D) The Business Continuity Plan is primarily concerned with maintaining critical business functions, not communication protocols.
Question 20
A company wants to have a detailed blueprint for recovering and restoring its IT systems and infrastructure after a disaster. What plan should be developed for this purpose?
Stakeholder management plan
Communication plan
Correct answer
Disaster recovery plan
Business continuity plan
Overall explanation
C) The Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) outlines the procedures for restoring and recovering IT systems and infrastructure after a disaster, ensuring the resumption of essential IT services.
Incorrect answers:
A) The Stakeholder management plan focuses on managing stakeholders, not specifically on IT system recovery.
B) The Communication plan focuses on communication strategies, not on the technical aspects of IT system recovery.
D) The Business Continuity Plan is concerned with maintaining critical business functions, not solely IT systems recovery.
Question 21
A security analyst needs to review and analyze a variety of security events, including alerts and potential threats, in a single interface. What tool or resource is best suited for this purpose?
Protocol analyzer output
Reconfigure endpoint security solutions
Correct answer
SIEM dashboards
Log files
Overall explanation
C) Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) dashboards provide a centralized interface for collecting, analyzing, and visualizing security-related events and alerts from various sources, enabling a comprehensive view of potential threats.
Incorrect answers:
A) Protocol analyzer output provides detailed packet-level information but isn’t typically used for consolidated security event analysis.
B) Reconfiguring endpoint security solutions is an action rather than a tool for reviewing and analyzing security events.
D) Log files contain historical records but lack the visualization and consolidation offered by SIEM dashboards.
Question 22
In an investigation of a security incident, which methodology is primarily used to identify, preserve, examine, and present digital evidence?
Vulnerability scanning
Risk management
Correct answer
Digital forensics
Data loss prevention
Overall explanation
C) Digital forensics is the process of identifying, preserving, examining, and presenting digital evidence. It involves a systematic investigation of digital devices or data to uncover potential evidence relevant to a security incident or investigation.
Incorrect answers:
A) Vulnerability scanning involves discovering and assessing vulnerabilities in systems, not the investigation and analysis of digital evidence.
B) Risk management is the process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks but is not directly related to the investigation of digital evidence.
D) Data loss prevention involves strategies and tools to prevent data breaches but is not specifically tied to investigating digital evidence.
Question 23
What is the primary purpose of using hashing in digital forensics?
To encrypt sensitive data
Correct answer
To identify unique files
To compress data for storage
To perform data recovery
Overall explanation
B) Hashing in digital forensics is used to create unique identifiers (hash values) for files or data. These unique hashes can verify data integrity and identify files, helping in identifying duplicates or alterations in digital evidence.
Incorrect answers:
A) Encrypting sensitive data is a security measure to protect data but is not the primary purpose of hashing in digital forensics.
C) Compressing data is a method of reducing the size of data for storage efficiency and is not the primary role of hashing in digital forensics.
D) Data recovery is the process of restoring data that has been lost, corrupted, or deleted, which is different from the use of hashing to identify unique files.
Question 24
A file is identified as having been modified. What technique is typically used to verify the integrity of the file?
Correct answer
Data hashing
Data encryption
Data recovery
Data obfuscation
Overall explanation
A) Data hashing is used to create a unique digital fingerprint (hash value) for a file or data. It is commonly used to verify file integrity by generating a hash and comparing it with the original hash to confirm if the file has been modified.
Incorrect answers:
B) Data encryption involves encoding data for security, not specifically used to verify file integrity.
C) Data recovery refers to retrieving lost or hidden data, not confirming the integrity of a modified file.
D) Data obfuscation involves concealing data to make it less understandable or visible, not used to verify file integrity.
Question 25
What is the term for the process of intentionally concealing data to make it less understandable or visible?
Data recovery
Data encryption
Correct answer
Data obfuscation
Data hashing
Overall explanation
C) Data obfuscation is the intentional process of making data less understandable or visible, often to protect sensitive information or hinder unauthorized access.
Incorrect answers:
A) Data recovery is the process of retrieving lost or hidden data, not intentionally concealing it.
B) Data encryption involves encoding data for security purposes, not making it less understandable.
D) Data hashing creates a unique digital fingerprint for file integrity, not involved in intentionally concealing data.
Question 26
How does the MITRE ATT&CK framework primarily assist in incident response?
Correct answer
Mapping adversary tactics and techniques
Creating network access controls
Conducting vulnerability assessments
Analyzing system logs
Overall explanation
A) The MITRE ATT&CK framework is used to map out adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) that attackers use during various stages of an attack. It helps in understanding the behaviors and tactics of adversaries to improve incident response strategies.
Incorrect answers:
B) Creating network access controls involves establishing rules or measures for allowing or denying access to networks, but it’s not the primary purpose of the MITRE ATT&CK framework.
C) Conducting vulnerability assessments focuses on identifying weaknesses in systems, not the primary function of the MITRE ATT&CK framework.
D) Analyzing system logs involves reviewing system-generated records, but this is not the primary focus of the MITRE ATT&CK framework.
Question 27
What is the primary purpose of a post-incident review in incident response?
Correct answer
Identifying weaknesses in incident response procedures
Implementing immediate network shutdown
Auditing employee access logs
Configuring intrusion detection systems
Overall explanation
A) A post-incident review primarily aims to analyze the response to an incident, identifying areas that could be improved in incident handling procedures for better future responses.
Incorrect answers:
B) Implementing immediate network shutdown could be a response strategy but is not the primary purpose of a post-incident review.
C) Auditing employee access logs is a security measure but not the main objective of a post-incident review.
D) Configuring intrusion detection systems is a security enhancement but not the primary goal of a post-incident review.
Question 28
How do security information and event management (SIEM) systems contribute to incident response with log files?
Storing log files in cloud servers
Correct answer
Correlating and analyzing log data for security incidents
Deleting obsolete log entries
Modifying access control lists
Overall explanation
B) SIEM systems are used to collect, aggregate, and analyze log data from various sources to identify and respond to security incidents by correlating and analyzing the log data for potential threats or abnormalities.
Incorrect answers:
A) Storing log files in cloud servers could be a function of log file storage but is not the primary role of SIEM systems.
C) Deleting obsolete log entries is a routine log management task but not the primary function of SIEM systems.
D) Modifying access control lists is a security practice but is not the primary purpose of SIEM systems.
Question 29
What role does non-repudiation play in log file management during incident response?
Correct answer
Ensuring the integrity and authenticity of log data
Clearing logs after a specified time
Encrypting log entries for secure storage
Providing GUI elements for log navigation
Overall explanation
A) Non-repudiation ensures that log entries cannot be denied or repudiated, maintaining their integrity and authenticity, which is crucial for incident response and forensic investigations.
Incorrect answers:
B) Clearing logs after a specified time is contrary to non-repudiation, which aims to maintain data integrity.
C) Encrypting log entries for secure storage is essential but is not the primary role of non-repudiation.
D) Providing GUI elements is not the main objective of non-repudiation in log file management.
Question 30
A security analyst at a tech company needs to monitor network traffic for potential threats and perform intrusion detection analysis in real-time without interrupting network operations. Which tool would be the most suitable for capturing and analyzing packets to identify and log potential security issues?
Correct answer
Tcpdump
Wireshark
John the Ripper
Hydra
Overall explanation
A) Tcpdump is a command-line packet analyzer used for network traffic analysis, allowing the user to capture and display packet data on a network without interrupting network operations.
Incorrect Answers:
B) Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used for capturing and analyzing packet data, but it might interrupt network operations when capturing packets for analysis.
C) John the Ripper is a password-cracking tool used to detect weak passwords and crack hashed passwords, not for network traffic analysis.
D) Hydra is a password-cracking tool primarily used for online password attacks and is not suitable for capturing and analyzing packets for intrusion detection.
Question 31
A cybersecurity analyst notices an increased amount of broadcast traffic on the network. What might this indicate?
Potential distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack
Normal network operation
Correct answer
Potential network reconnaissance or scanning
Potential ransomware infection
Overall explanation
C) An unusual surge in broadcast traffic might signal network reconnaissance or scanning activities, as attackers often use these methods to discover devices and vulnerabilities.
Incorrect answers:
A) Potential distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack A DDoS attack typically involves flooding a network with traffic to overwhelm it, not specifically an increase in broadcast traffic.
B) Normal network operation While broadcast traffic is a regular part of network communication, an unusual surge might indicate abnormal activities.
D) Potential ransomware infection Ransomware infections may cause specific network anomalies, but an increase in broadcast traffic is not typically a direct sign of ransomware.
Question 32
During a routine security audit, the IT team identifies numerous entries in the firewall logs showing failed login attempts from various IP addresses. What might these entries indicate?
Misconfigured firewall settings
Normal network behavior
Correct answer
Potential brute-force attack
Routine system updates
Overall explanation
C) Multiple failed login attempts from various IP addresses might suggest a brute-force attack, where an attacker attempts to gain unauthorized access by trying multiple login combinations.
Incorrect Answers:
A) Misconfigured firewall settings While misconfigurations might lead to security vulnerabilities, the presence of numerous failed login attempts from various IPs is not a direct indicator of misconfigured firewall settings.
B) Normal network behavior Multiple failed login attempts from various IPs are not considered normal network behavior.
D) Routine system updates Routine system updates wouldn’t typically trigger numerous failed login attempts from different IP addresses.
Question 33
A network administrator observes an unusual spike in DNS traffic originating from a specific internal IP address. What might this indicate?
A misconfigured DNS server
Routine DNS cache refresh
Correct answer
Possible DNS tunneling or exfiltration
A successful phishing attack
Overall explanation
C) An abnormal spike in DNS traffic from a specific internal IP address might suggest DNS tunneling, where attackers exploit DNS protocol to transfer data covertly.
Incorrect Answers:
A) A misconfigured DNS server A misconfigured server might cause issues, but an unusual spike in DNS traffic usually doesn’t indicate a misconfiguration.
B) Routine DNS cache refresh Routine DNS operations like cache refreshes don’t typically cause unusual spikes in traffic from specific internal IP addresses.
D) A successful phishing attack Phishing attacks typically involve social engineering tactics to deceive users, not directly causing a spike in DNS traffic from an IP address.
Question 34
A company’s network administrator observes a sudden increase in ARP traffic, especially in ARP requests. What might this indicate?
Routine network maintenance
Correct answer
Potential ARP poisoning or spoofing
Normal network behavior
Planned network expansion
Overall explanation
B) An abrupt surge in Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests can suggest potential ARP poisoning or spoofing, a technique used by attackers to intercept network traffic.
Incorrect Answers:
A) Routine network maintenance ARP traffic increases are not typically part of routine maintenance processes.
C) Normal network behavior Sudden spikes in ARP requests are usually considered abnormal behavior.
D) Planned network expansion Network expansion plans usually involve controlled and documented activities, rather than sudden increases in ARP traffic.
Question 35
A system administrator detects multiple instances of ICMP Echo Request packets originating from various external IP addresses directed towards internal network devices. What could this activity signify?
Regular network health checks
Correct answer
Ping sweeps or network scanning
Routine data backup processes
Scheduled software updates
Overall explanation
B) Multiple ICMP Echo Requests from external IPs directed at internal network devices may indicate a ping sweep or scanning attempts to discover live hosts.
Incorrect Answers:
A) Regular network health checks Regular network health checks don’t typically involve multiple ICMP Echo Requests from external IPs directed at internal devices.
C) Routine data backup processes Data backup processes do not typically involve ICMP Echo Request packets aimed at internal network devices.
D) Scheduled software updates Scheduled software updates usually do not generate multiple ICMP Echo Requests from external IPs to internal devices.
Question 36
Which of the following is a crucial consideration when selecting the method for acquiring digital evidence in a forensic investigation?
Speed of the acquisition process
Modifying the original data to acquire faster
Using different methodologies for various devices
Correct answer
Minimizing the impact on the original evidence
Overall explanation
D) Selecting an acquisition method that minimizes the impact on original evidence is crucial to maintain its integrity and reliability.
Incorrect answer:
A) Speed of the acquisition process While speed is important, maintaining data integrity is a higher priority in digital forensics.
B) Modifying the original data to acquire faster Modifying the original data compromises its integrity, which is against digital forensic best practices.
C) Using different methodologies for various devices Using varied methodologies is acceptable but doesn’t guarantee minimizing the impact on original evidence.
Question 37
During the digital forensics acquisition phase, why is documenting the chain of custody of evidence crucial?
To create a chronological log of acquired data
Correct answer
To authenticate the evidence for the court
To manipulate the acquired data without suspicion
To speed up the investigation process
Overall explanation
B) Documenting the chain of custody ensures the evidence’s authenticity, supporting its admissibility in court.
Incorrect answers:
A) To create a chronological log of acquired data While documenting the chain of custody involves a chronological log, its primary purpose is evidence authentication.
C) To manipulate the acquired data without suspicion Chain of custody documentation is not about manipulating data but ensuring its integrity.
D) To speed up the investigation process The chain of custody’s primary role is to ensure evidence authenticity, not to expedite investigations.
Question 38
During which stage of the Cyber Kill Chain does an attacker maintain control over compromised systems and continues to perform malicious activities?
Installation
Actions on Objectives
Correct answer
Command and Control
Reconnaissance
Overall explanation
C) The Command and Control stage is where attackers maintain control over compromised systems, continuing their malicious activities.
Incorrect Answers:
A) The Installation stage involves the installation of malware or tools to maintain access but not necessarily the control of compromised systems.
B) Objectives involve the attainment of the attacker’s goal after accessing the systems, not necessarily maintaining control.
D) Reconnaissance is the stage where attackers gather information, not maintain control over compromised systems.
Question 39
Which command is used to change the permissions of a file to make it executable in Unix-based shell environments?
Correct answer
chmod
ls
grep
cat
Overall explanation
A) The ‘chmod’ command in Unix-based shell environments is used to change the permissions of a file, including making it executable.
Incorrect Answers:
B) ls ‘ls’ is used to list directory contents, not to modify file permissions.
C) grep ‘grep’ is used for searching text patterns within files, not for altering file permissions.
D) cat ‘cat’ is used to display the content of files, not to modify their permissions.
Question 40
What is the primary purpose of the ‘tracert’/’traceroute’ command in networking?
To identify network switches and routers
To reveal the IP address of the user’s device
To establish secure connections with remote hosts
Correct answer
To detect and display the network path to a destination
Overall explanation
D) The primary purpose of ‘tracert’ or ‘traceroute’ is to identify and display the network path that packets take to reach a destination.
Incorrect Answers:
A) To identify network switches and routers While ‘tracert’/’traceroute’ does reveal network devices, its primary goal is to identify the network path, not specific devices.
B) To reveal the IP address of the user’s device ‘tracert’/’traceroute’ primarily identifies network paths, not the user’s device IP.
C) To establish secure connections with remote hosts ‘tracert’/’traceroute’ does not establish connections but traces the path of packets to a destination.
