https://www.udemy.com/course/comptia-security-601-practice-exam-domain-1-5/learn/quiz/6100308#overview
Domain 3 – Implementation – Results
Back to result overview
Attempt 1
All domains
- 40 all
- 0 correct
- 0 incorrect
- 40
- 0 marked
Collapse all questions
Question 1
Which intrusion detection system primarily identifies attacks by comparing traffic patterns against a pre-established set of rules or signatures?
Anomaly-based IDS
Correct answer
Signature-based IDS
IPSec
SSL/TLS
Overall explanation
B) A Signature-based Intrusion Detection System (IDS) identifies attacks by comparing traffic patterns against a pre-established set of rules or signatures. It works by matching known attack patterns against network traffic to detect threats.
Incorrect answers:
A) Anomaly-based IDS detects abnormal activities rather than specific known patterns.
C) IPSec is a cryptographic protocol used for secure communication and not specific to intrusion detection.
D) SSL/TLS is a cryptographic protocol used for secure communication and not specific to intrusion detection.
Question 2
A network administrator is responsible for securing a web server. What is a key consideration when implementing secure communication with HTTPS?
Use a self-signed certificate for simplicity.
Enable plain HTTP for public-facing content.
Correct answer
Purchase a valid SSL/TLS certificate from a trusted certificate authority.
Store sensitive data in clear text on the web server.
Overall explanation
C) Using a valid SSL/TLS certificate from a trusted certificate authority ensures secure communication and data integrity, which is crucial for web server security.
Incorrect Answers:
A) Using a self-signed certificate may not be trusted by users and is not recommended for public websites.
B) Enabling plain HTTP for public-facing content is not secure.
D) Storing sensitive data in clear text on the web server is a security risk.
Question 3
A Database Administrator (DBA) is tasked with securing a database server. What is a recommended practice for database security?
Use easily guessable database passwords for user accounts.
Correct answer
Implement role-based access control (RBAC) to restrict user privileges.
Share the entire database with external partners.
Store sensitive data without encryption.
Overall explanation
B) Implementing RBAC helps restrict user privileges within the database, ensuring that users can only access data and perform actions necessary for their roles.
Incorrect Answers:
A) Using easily guessable database passwords is a security risk.
C) Sharing the entire database with external partners can compromise security.
D) Storing sensitive data without encryption is not a recommended practice for database security.
Question 4
You’re managing identity and account controls for a corporate network. What’s a primary consideration when implementing a robust password policy for user accounts?
Enforcing the reuse of passwords to simplify password management.
Allowing employees to choose easily memorable passwords.
Requiring frequent password changes without any complexity requirements.
Correct answer
Implementing complex, unique, and regularly updated passwords.
Overall explanation
D) Implementing complex, unique, and regularly updated passwords is crucial for a robust password policy. This strategy helps enhance security by making passwords more difficult to crack and reduces the likelihood of password reuse.
Incorrect answers:
A) Enforcing the reuse of passwords is a security risk, as recycled passwords increase vulnerability.
B) Allowing easily memorable passwords may lead to weak and easily guessable passwords.
C) Requiring frequent password changes without complexity requirements can lead to weak, predictable passwords.
Question 5
You are enhancing access control measures for a corporate network. What technology is specifically designed for centralized access control in network environments, providing a separate authentication system?
OAuth
Correct answer
Kerberos
Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
MAC
Overall explanation
B) Kerberos is a network authentication protocol specifically designed for centralized access control, offering a separate authentication system. It uses tickets and a Key Distribution Center (KDC) to authenticate users and provide secure access to network resources.
Incorrect answers:
A) OAuth is an authorization framework for third-party applications and does not primarily focus on centralized access control in network environments.
C) Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is an access control model rather than specific authentication protocol or system.
D) Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is an access control model rather than specific authentication protocol or system.
Question 6
Which technology standardizes authentication without exposing user credentials to the service provider?
Root
TACACS+
Correct answer
OpenID
Domain Validation
Overall explanation
C) OpenID is a technology that standardizes authentication, allowing users to access multiple services with a single set of credentials without disclosing their credentials to service providers. It’s commonly used for single sign-on solutions.
Incorrect answers:
A) Root doesn’t relate to standardizing authentication for accessing multiple services without exposing credentials.
B) TACACS+ is a Cisco-developed protocol for secure remote authentication and authorization, not specifically for standardizing authentication across services.
D) Domain Validation is a method used in verifying domain ownership for SSL certificates, not specifically for single sign-on authentication.
Question 7
Which protocol provides a method for a client to request services from a network server without exposing user credentials?
OAuth
Correct answer
TACACS+
Root
OpenID
Overall explanation
B) TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) provides a method for a client to request services from a network server without exposing user credentials. It’s a protocol for centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) services.
Incorrect answers:
A) OAuth is an authorization protocol, primarily used for third-party access delegation, rather than providing secure client-to-server authentication without exposing user credentials.
C) Root refers to the highest-level user account in Unix-based systems and isn’t a protocol for client-to-server authentication.
D) OpenID is an authentication protocol for single sign-on but doesn’t specifically provide a method to request services from a network server without exposing user credentials.
Question 8
What entity is responsible for verifying the identity of certificate holders and issuing digital certificates?
Certificate revocation list (CRL)
Intermediate CA
Correct answer
Certificate authority (CA)
Registration authority (RA)
Overall explanation
C) A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for verifying the identity of certificate holders and issuing digital certificates. It validates the identity of entities and binds their public keys to their identity through a digital signature.
Incorrect answers:
A) Certificate Revocation List (CRL) is a list of revoked certificates, not responsible for issuing certificates.
B) Intermediate CA is an intermediary in the chain of trust, authorized to issue certificates on behalf of the CA but not the primary issuer.
D) Registration Authority (RA) assists in the identity verification process, but it doesn’t issue certificates directly.
Question 9
You’re setting up a public key infrastructure. What element performs the critical task of confirming the validity of a digital certificate, facilitating real-time status checks?
Certificate signing request (CSR)
Correct answer
Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP)
Key management
CN (Common Name)
Overall explanation
B) The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) performs the critical task of confirming the validity of a digital certificate by providing real-time status checks. It enables systems to verify if a certificate is valid or revoked.
Incorrect answers:
A) Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is an entity’s request for a certificate; it’s not involved in validating certificate status.
C) Key Management involves handling encryption keys and doesn’t specifically address real-time validation of certificates.
D) CN (Common Name) is a field in a certificate but doesn’t perform real-time validity checks.
Question 10
What specific data field in a certificate identifies the entity associated with the public key contained in the certificate?
Certificate signing request (CSR)
Intermediate CA
Correct answer
CN (Common Name)
Certificate revocation list (CRL)
Overall explanation
C) The Common Name (CN) field in a certificate identifies the entity associated with the public key contained in the certificate. It’s a naming attribute associated with the subject of the certificate.
Incorrect answers:
A) Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is the request for a certificate and not a specific field within the certificate.
B) Intermediate CA is a certificate authority but is not a specific field identifying the entity.
D) Certificate Revocation List (CRL) is a list of revoked certificates, not a field that identifies the entity associated with the public key.
Question 11
Your organization is implementing a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy. What is a recommended security measure to ensure the security of employee-owned devices?
Allow employees to install any applications they choose.
Correct answer
Implement Mobile Device Management (MDM) software.
Share sensitive company data openly with all devices.
Disable all security features to improve device performance.
Overall explanation
B) Implementing MDM software helps organizations manage and secure employee-owned devices, enforce security policies, and protect company data on those devices.
Incorrect answers:
A) Allowing employees to install any applications they choose can introduce security risks.
C) Sharing sensitive company data openly with all devices is a security risk.
D) Disabling security features compromises the security of devices.
Question 12
A network admin is establishing secure communication channels over the internet. What cryptographic protocol suite provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality for VPN connections, including site-to-site connections?
SSL/TLS
Correct answer
IPSec
Network-based Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)
Remote access
Overall explanation
B) IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a cryptographic protocol suite that provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality for VPN connections, including site-to-site connections, securing communication over the internet.
Incorrect answers:
A) SSL/TLS are cryptographic protocols commonly used for securing web traffic, but they’re not primarily designed for VPN connectivity.
C) NIDS focuses on detecting and preventing intrusions in the network, unrelated to VPN security.
D) Remote access refers to the method by which users connect to a network, not specifically the security protocol used for encryption.
Question 13
What intrusion detection method primarily detects attacks by identifying deviations from established baselines?
Correct answer
Heuristic/Behavior-based IDS
Network-based Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS)
Signature-based IDS
SSL/TLS
Overall explanation
A) Heuristic/Behavior-based IDS primarily detects attacks by identifying deviations from established baselines or normal behavior within network traffic, flagging anomalies that could indicate potential threats.
Incorrect answers:
B) NIPS actively prevents intrusions rather than primarily focusing on identifying deviations from established baselines.
C) Signature-based IDS matches traffic patterns against pre-established signatures or known attack patterns.
D) SSL/TLS are cryptographic protocols used for secure communication, not specifically related to intrusion detection.
Question 14
What system provides a secure, encrypted method for remote access users to connect to the corporate network?
Anomaly-based IDS
Correct answer
IPSec
Signature-based IDS
Heuristic/Behavior-based IDS
Overall explanation
B) IPSec provides a secure, encrypted method for remote access users to connect to the corporate network. It establishes a VPN to securely transmit data over the internet and connect remote users to the corporate network.
Incorrect answers:
A) Anomaly-based IDS detects unusual activities within network traffic, not specifically related to providing secure encrypted access for remote users.
C) Signature-based IDS identifies attacks by comparing traffic patterns against pre-established rules or signatures.
D) Heuristic/Behavior-based IDS primarily detects attacks by identifying deviations from established baselines in network traffic.
Question 15
What protocol ensures secure transmission of data between a web server and a browser?
IPSec
Remote access
Correct answer
SSL/TLS
CN (Common Name)
Overall explanation
C) Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and its successor, Transport Layer Security (TLS), ensure secure transmission of data between a web server and a browser, providing encryption and security for web browsing.
Incorrect answers:
A) IPSec is primarily used for securing network communications, not specifically for securing web browsing.
B) Remote access is a method for accessing a network and is not a specific protocol for securing web communication.
D) CN (Common Name) is a field in a certificate that identifies the entity associated with the public key, not a protocol for secure web browsing.
Question 16
An organization is assessing the security of a system and need to identify what should be controlled to minimize potential attack vectors. What common cybersecurity measure involves closing unnecessary communication entry points into a system?
Patch management
Correct answer
Open ports and services
Disk encryption
OS
Overall explanation
B) Open ports and services involve controlling unnecessary communication entry points into a system. Closing or securing these ports helps minimize potential attack vectors by limiting entry points for unauthorized access.
Incorrect answers:
A) Patch management involves updating and fixing software vulnerabilities to enhance security, rather than specifically controlling communication entry points.
C) Disk encryption pertains to securing stored data by converting it into unreadable code, but it doesn’t primarily address unnecessary communication entry points.
D) OS (Operating System) refers to the software that manages computer hardware and software resources, not specifically controlling communication entry points.
Question 17
What component is primarily responsible for storing configurations, settings, and options for the operating system and other software?
OS
Correct answer
Registry
Anti-malware
Endpoint detection
Overall explanation
B) The Registry is primarily responsible for storing configurations, settings, and options for the operating system and other software, managing system integrity and various configurations.
Incorrect answers:
A) OS (Operating System) manages resources and services, but it doesn’t primarily store configurations and settings.
C) Anti-malware software is designed to prevent, detect, and remove malware, not primarily for storing system configurations.
D) Endpoint detection involves identifying and mitigating threats, not specifically storing system configurations.
Question 18
What practice involves regularly updating and fixing security vulnerabilities in software to prevent exploitation?
Endpoint detection
Anti-malware
OS
Correct answer
Patch management
Overall explanation
D) Patch management involves regularly updating and fixing security vulnerabilities in software, serving to prevent exploitation and enhance system security by addressing identified vulnerabilities.
Incorrect answers:
A) Endpoint detection is focused on identifying and mitigating threats rather than specifically addressing identified vulnerabilities in software.
B) Anti-malware software is designed to prevent, detect, and remove malware, not primarily for managing software vulnerabilities.
C) OS (Operating System) manages resources and services but isn’t specifically focused on managing software vulnerabilities.
Question 19
To ensure seamless internet usage within the organization. What system converts domain names into IP addresses, allowing users to access websites through recognizable domain names?
File transfer
Directory services
Remote access
Correct answer
Domain name resolution (DNS)
Overall explanation
D) Domain name resolution involves converting domain names into IP addresses, allowing users to access websites through recognizable domain names.
Incorrect answers:
A) File transfer primarily involves securely moving files between systems and is not involved in converting domain names to IP addresses.
B) Directory services centrally manage network resources and users but are not responsible for domain name resolution.
C) Remote access facilitates secure access to a network but is not directly related to converting domain names to IP addresses.
Question 20
What service or protocol primarily enables this automatic assignment of IP addresses?
Directory services
Correct answer
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
Network address allocation
Routing and switching
Overall explanation
B) DHCP is the service or protocol that primarily enables the automatic assignment of IP addresses to devices connected to the network, allowing for dynamic allocation of IP addresses.
Incorrect answers:
A) Directory services centrally manage network resources and users but are not primarily responsible for dynamically assigning IP addresses.
C) File transfer involves securely moving files between systems and is not directly related to assigning IP addresses dynamically.
D) Routing and switching determine the path that network traffic takes but are not responsible for dynamically assigning IP addresses to devices.
Question 21
A government agency is implementing data loss prevention (DLP) software. What is the primary purpose of DLP in this context?
To centralize user authentication and authorization for government employees
Correct answer
To protect sensitive government data by preventing unauthorized data leaks and ensuring compliance with regulations
To optimize network performance for efficient data transmission
To accelerate data transfer rates for government communication
Overall explanation
B) In this scenario, the primary purpose of DLP implementation is to protect sensitive government data by preventing unauthorized data leaks and ensuring compliance with regulations and data security policies.
Incorrect answers:
A) Authentication is important but not the primary goal of DLP.
C) Network performance is not the primary focus of DLP.
D) Data transfer rates are not the primary goal of DLP.
Question 22
When implementing encryption for data protection, what is the primary goal of a public-key infrastructure (PKI)?
To accelerate data transfer rates
To enhance network aesthetics
Correct answer
To ensure confidentiality and data integrity
To centralize data storage
Overall explanation
C) The primary goal of a public-key infrastructure (PKI) in encryption is to ensure the confidentiality and data integrity of information through the use of public and private keys for encryption and digital signatures.
Incorrect answer:
A) To accelerate data transfer rates: PKI is not primarily concerned with data transfer rates.
B) To enhance network aesthetics: Network aesthetics are unrelated to PKI.
D) To centralize data storage: Centralizing data storage is not the primary role of PKI.
Question 23
In the implementation of secure coding practices, which principle focuses on validating and sanitizing user input to prevent common vulnerabilities?
To optimize network performance
To ensure proper data entry in forms
To enhance network aesthetics
Correct answer
To protect against injection attacks and invalid data
Overall explanation
D) The principle of validating and sanitizing user input primarily focuses on protecting against injection attacks and ensuring that data entered by users is free from vulnerabilities.
Incorrect answers:
A) To optimize network performance: Input validation is not primarily about network performance.
B) To ensure proper data entry in forms: While related, the main goal is security.
C) To enhance network aesthetics: Aesthetics are unrelated to input validation.
Question 24
When implementing secure network designs, which security solution is typically used to separate a network into multiple broadcast domains, enhancing security and network management?
Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Network Access Control (NAC)
Correct answer
Virtual LAN (VLAN)
Firewall
Overall explanation
C) Virtual LAN (VLAN) is typically used to separate a network into multiple broadcast domains, enhancing security and network management by isolating groups of devices from one another.
Incorrect answer:
A) IDS is used for detecting security threats, not network segmentation.
B) NAC is used to control and manage access to the network but is not primarily for network segmentation.
D) Firewalls control incoming and outgoing traffic but do not separate broadcast domains like VLANs.
Question 25
Which protocol is commonly used to secure email communications by providing message encryption and authentication?
HTTP
FTP
SMTP
Correct answer
TLS
Overall explanation
D) TLS (Transport Layer Security) is commonly used to secure email communications by providing message encryption and authentication, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of email content.
Incorrect answers:
A) HTTP is used for web communication and is not a protocol for securing emails.
B) FTP is a file transfer protocol and is not used to secure email communications.
C) SMTP is an email protocol but does not provide encryption and authentication to the same extent as TLS.
Question 26
When implementing host or application security solutions, what is the primary purpose of antivirus software?
To encrypt network traffic
To protect against unauthorized access to servers
Correct answer
To detect and remove malware and viruses from the host system
To optimize network performance
Overall explanation
C) The primary purpose of antivirus software is to detect and remove malware and viruses from the host system, enhancing security by preventing malicious software from executing.
Incorrect answers:
A) To encrypt network traffic: Antivirus software is not primarily responsible for encrypting network traffic.
B) To protect against unauthorized access to servers: Server protection is a different security solution.
D) To optimize network performance: Antivirus software focuses on security, not network performance.
Question 27
In secure network designs, what is the primary goal of implementing network segmentation and access controls?
To accelerate data transfer rates
To centralize user authentication and authorization
To enhance network aesthetics
Correct answer
To reduce the attack surface and limit lateral movement of threats
Overall explanation
D) The primary goal of implementing network segmentation and access controls is to reduce the attack surface, limiting lateral movement of threats within a network, and enhancing overall security.
Incorrect answers:
A) To accelerate data transfer rates: Network segmentation is about security, not speed.
B) To centralize user authentication and authorization: This is related to access control but not the primary goal of network segmentation.
C) To enhance network aesthetics: Aesthetics are unrelated to network segmentation.
Question 28
In the context of implementing secure network designs, what is the primary goal of a demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
To centralize user authentication and authorization
To enhance network aesthetics
Correct answer
To protect internal network resources by isolating public-facing servers
To optimize network performance
Overall explanation
C) The primary goal of a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is to protect internal network resources by isolating public-facing servers from the internal network, enhancing security.
Incorrect answers:
A) User authentication is not the primary role of a DMZ.
B) Aesthetics are unrelated to DMZs.
D) Network performance optimization is not the primary focus of a DMZ.
Question 29
A financial institution is implementing host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) on its critical servers. Why is this practice crucial for the institution’s security?
To optimize network performance for efficient transactions
Correct answer
To ensure that security threats and unauthorized access to sensitive financial data are detected and mitigated on individual servers
To centralize user authentication and authorization
To enhance the aesthetics of the server rooms
Overall explanation
B) In this scenario, the primary purpose of HIDS is to detect and respond to security threats and unauthorized access on individual servers, providing an essential layer of security for sensitive financial data.
Incorrect answers:
A) To optimize network performance for efficient transactions: While HIDS may impact performance, its primary focus is security.
C) To centralize user authentication and authorization: HIDS is not primarily responsible for user authentication and authorization.
D) To enhance the aesthetics of the server rooms: Aesthetics are unrelated to HIDS.
Question 30
you work for an e-commerce company, and you’re responsible for implementing a Web Application Firewall (WAF) for your online store. In this scenario, why is a WAF essential to protect your business?
To encrypt all incoming and outgoing traffic.
To enhance the aesthetics of your website
Correct answer
To protect your online store from cyberattacks, such as SQL injection and cross-site scripting.
To centralize data storage for efficient access
Overall explanation
C) the primary purpose of a WAF is to protect the online store from cyberattacks, ensuring the security of customer data and transactions.
Incorrect answers:
A) To encrypt all incoming and outgoing traffic for a better customer experience: While encryption is important, it’s not the primary role of a WAF.
B) To enhance the aesthetics of your website: Aesthetics are unrelated to the security role of a WAF.
D) To centralize data storage for efficient access: Data storage is not the primary role of a WAF.
Question 31
When implementing encryption for data protection, what is the primary goal of a symmetric key algorithm?
To accelerate data transfer rates
To enhance network aesthetics
Correct answer
To ensure confidentiality and integrity of data
To centralize data storage
Overall explanation
C) The primary goal of a symmetric key algorithm in encryption is to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of data by using a single key for both encryption and decryption.
Incorrect answer:
A) To accelerate data transfer rates: Symmetric key algorithms do not primarily focus on data transfer rates.
B) To enhance network aesthetics: Network aesthetics are unrelated to symmetric key algorithms.
D) To centralize data storage: Centralized data storage is not the primary role of symmetric key algorithms.
Question 32
You’re setting up a secure Wi-Fi network for your office. What is a key consideration when implementing a strong wireless security protocol?
Use WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) for backward compatibility.
Correct answer
Implement WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) with strong encryption.
Disable SSID broadcast for network obscurity.
Utilize MAC address filtering to allow specific devices.
Overall explanation
B) In an office setting, implementing WPA3 with strong encryption is crucial for ensuring the security of your Wi-Fi network and the data transmitted over it. WEP is outdated and insecure.
Incorrect answers:
A) Using WEP is a weak security choice and not recommended.
C) Disabling SSID broadcast does not significantly enhance security.
D) MAC address filtering can be bypassed, so it should not be relied upon as the sole security measure.
Question 33
You’ve been tasked with encrypting a company laptop to protect sensitive data. What is essential to protect the decryption key?
Store the decryption key in plain text on the device.
Correct answer
Use a strong passphrase to protect the decryption key.
Share the decryption key with trusted colleagues.
Publish the decryption key on a public website.
Overall explanation
B) Use a strong passphrase to protect the decryption key.
Incorrect answers:
A) Storing the decryption key in plain text is a security risk.
C) Sharing the decryption key is not a recommended security practice.
D) Publishing the decryption key publicly is a significant security violation.
Question 34
Your organization aims to enhance network security. What is the primary objective of implementing an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
To prevent all network attacks and unauthorized access.
Correct answer
To detect and alert on suspicious or malicious activity.
To block all network traffic from external sources.
To encrypt all network communications.
Overall explanation
B) An IDS’s primary role is to identify and alert on unusual or potentially harmful network activity, helping organizations respond to security threats. It doesn’t prevent all attacks.
Incorrect answers:
A) Preventing all network attacks and unauthorized access is the role of a firewall, not an IDS.
C) Blocking all network traffic from external sources is not the primary function of an IDS.
D) Encrypting network communications is the role of encryption protocols, not an IDS.
Question 35
You’re responsible for setting up access controls in your organization’s IT systems. What does the principle of least privilege (POLP) aim to achieve?
Grant the maximum access to all users.
Grant access based on job titles.
Correct answer
Grant users the minimum access necessary to perform their tasks.
Grant unrestricted access to all administrative accounts.
Overall explanation
C) POLP ensures that users are granted the least amount of access required to perform their job functions, reducing the risk of unauthorized access and security breaches.
Incorrect answers:
A) Granting maximum access to all users is not a security best practice.
B) Granting access based on job titles does not necessarily adhere to the principle of least privilege.
D) Granting unrestricted access to administrative accounts is a security risk and not in line with POLP.
Question 36
When implementing a secure password policy, which of the following is a recommended practice to enhance security?
Allow users to reuse their previous passwords.
Correct answer
Require complex passwords that include a combination of letters, numbers, and special characters.
Set a default password for all new user accounts.
Implement password rotation every six months.
Overall explanation
B) Requiring complex passwords with a mix of letters, numbers, and special characters increases the difficulty for attackers to guess or crack passwords, enhancing security.
Incorrect Answers:
A) Allowing users to reuse previous passwords can reduce security.
C) Setting a default password for all new accounts is a security risk.
D) Password rotation every six months, without considering other factors, may not be the most effective security measure.
Question 37
Which technology should be implemented to provide a secure and encrypted connection for remote users to access internal resources?
Correct answer
Virtual Private Network (VPN).
Telnet
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).
FTP (File Transfer Protocol).
Overall explanation
A) A VPN provides a secure and encrypted connection for remote users to access internal resources, ensuring data confidentiality and integrity.
Incorrect Answers:
B) Telnet and RDP are not typically used for secure remote access.
C) RDP, while encrypted, is more for remote desktop access, not secure network access.
D) FTP does not provide the necessary security for remote network access.
Question 38
Your organization is implementing a secure backup strategy. What is a best practice for ensuring the security of backup data?
Store backup data in an unencrypted, publicly accessible cloud storage.
Correct answer
Implement regular, automated backups with versioning.
Share backup data with external partners.
Keep backup data on the same server as the original data.
Overall explanation
B) Regular, automated backups with versioning ensure data recovery and security. Versioning allows the restoration of data to a specific point in time, which can be critical in case of data loss or breaches.
Incorrect Answers:
A) Storing backup data in an unencrypted, publicly accessible cloud storage is a security risk.
C) Sharing backup data with external partners without proper controls can compromise security.
D) Keeping backup data on the same server as the original data is risky; backups should be separate for redundancy and security.
Question 39
You are tasked with securing a web server. Which of the following is a recommended practice for protecting against web server vulnerabilities?
Disable all security updates to maintain stability.
Correct answer
Regularly update the web server software and plugins.
Allow unrestricted access to sensitive configuration files.
Set weak, easily guessable passwords for server access.
Overall explanation
B) Regularly updating the web server software and plugins is essential to patch known vulnerabilities and maintain the security of the server.
Incorrect Answers:
A) Disabling security updates is not advisable as it leaves the server vulnerable to known exploits.
C) Allowing unrestricted access to sensitive configuration files is a security risk.
D) Setting weak, easily guessable passwords for server access compromises security.
Question 40
You are configuring a firewall to enhance network security. What is a key consideration when implementing firewall rules?
Allow all incoming and outgoing traffic for simplicity.
Block all network traffic from external sources.
Correct answer
Create specific rules to allow necessary traffic and deny all else.
Disable the firewall to avoid network complexity.
Overall explanation
C) When configuring firewall rules, it’s important to follow the principle of least privilege and create specific rules to allow only necessary traffic while denying all other traffic, which enhances security.
Incorrect Answers:
A) Allowing all incoming and outgoing traffic simplifies the firewall but is not secure.
B) Blocking all network traffic from external sources may disrupt legitimate communication.
D) Disabling the firewall is a significant security risk.
